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How can the existence of a so-called family household complicate the sale of a property owned by one spouse?

Selling property owned solely by one spouse may still require the other spouse’s consent if the property serves as the family home. Without consent, the other spouse may challenge the transfer and seek invalidity. The article explains how to secure consent, why the land register does not reveal the family-home status and how contractual representations can protect the buyer.

Book cover on family, business, and property law for spouses and entrepreneurs.

Sole ownership vs. community of property

The family home and its legal protection

What is a so-called family household? You are talking about a family home if your property serves as a place where the family lives and resides. Therefore, if the property is a family home as defined by law, other legal aspects come into play that limit the rights of the sole owner of the property. Although the property is the property of only one spouse, the law provides special protection to the other spouse in order to avoid situations where the sale of the property could disrupt the stability of family life.

According to Article 747 of the Civil Code, the owner of real estate used as a family home cannot sell or encumber it without the consent of the other spouse. This consent is required whether or not the other spouse has ownership of the property. This requirement for consent is necessary to ensure that the sale of the property does not jeopardise the family's home and livelihood.

Consequences of lack of consent

If one spouse, as the owner of the property, sells the property without the other spouse's consent, there can be serious legal consequences. Under the Civil Code, the other spouse can challenge the sale in court and seek to have the sale declared void. In this way, not only the interest of the other spouse is protected, but also the interest of the children and the whole family in preserving the family home.

It should be borne in mind that the protection of the family home applies not only to the sale, but also to other legal actions concerning the property, such as the creation of a mortgage or the rental of the property.

Frequently asked questions about consent to the sale of a family home

1. When does a spouse need the other spouse's consent to sell their property?

When the house or flat contains the family home of the spouses or the family and is essential for their housing. Without consent, the owner may not alienate it or create any right over it the exercise of which is incompatible with the family's housing (Article 747(1) of the Civil Code).

2. Is a sale without the other spouse's consent automatically invalid?

No. The other spouse may invoke invalidity (Article 747(2) of the Civil Code), and if they do not, the transfer remains valid. It is therefore a relative invalidity, which the spouse can, however, invoke even after the buyer has already been registered in the Land Registry.

3. Can a property containing a family home be sold without consent?

Yes, if the owner provides the spouse or the family with housing comparable in all respects to the existing one. Proving this can be difficult, however, so even in such a case it is safer to obtain the other spouse's consent.
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Practical steps when selling and buying a property

If you are the sole owner of a property in which a family household exists, you must obtain the other spouse's written consent to the sale. This consent should be unambiguous and specify the conditions under which the other spouse is willing to approve the sale. The most ideal scenario is that the other spouse will also sign the contract of sale serving to sell the property, as an intervener.

Since it is not possible to ascertain whether there is a matrimonial household in the property from the Land Registry, one should always be cautious when buying from an owner who is married. Thus, if you are buying a property from an owner who is married and claims that there is no family household in the property, have the seller incorporate this statement into the written purchase agreement, subject to penalty of a contractual penalty if the statement is found to be untrue.

The above methods can eliminate, or at least significantly reduce, the risk of potential problems associated with the existence of a family household in the property being sold/purchased. Otherwise, the declaration of invalidity of the concluded purchase contract may cause a lot of inconvenience for both the seller and the buyer, especially if the buyer will finance the purchase of the property with a mortgage loan.

Conclusion

The sale of a property owned solely by one spouse and used as a family home requires careful legal evaluation and consistency in the preparation of the contractual documentation for the transfer of the property. If the contractual documentation and the legal assessment of the situation are not properly set up, there can be very unpleasant consequences for both the seller and the buyer. Therefore, it is always advisable to consult with an expert when selling/purchasing a property so that the contractual documentation is properly set up and possible risks are eliminated as much as possible.

Frequently asked questions about the family home when selling a property

1. Can the Land Registry show that a property contains a family home?

No. The family home is not entered in the Land Registry, and the title deed does not even show whether the seller is married. The buyer should therefore always expressly ask the seller for a statement regarding the family home.

2. How can I protect myself as a buyer?

Have the seller's statement that there is no family home in the property included in the purchase agreement, ideally with a contractual penalty in case it proves untrue. The safest option is for the other spouse to co-sign the purchase agreement and expressly give their consent to the sale in it.

3. Does the protection also apply to spouses with a joint tenancy?

Yes. If the spouses hold a joint tenancy of a flat containing the family home, neither of them may terminate the tenancy or restrict it by a right incompatible with the family's housing without the other's consent (Article 748 of the Civil Code). Otherwise, the other spouse may invoke invalidity.

4. Does the rule also apply to a property the spouse acquired before the marriage?

Yes. What matters is that the house or flat contains the family home and is essential for the family's housing, not when or how the spouse acquired it. It therefore also applies to a property owned solely by one spouse.

Next steps

Every situation is different and the right approach depends on the details. Tell us what you are dealing with – an ARROWS specialist will get back to you within 24 hours, assess your situation and propose the next steps.

About the author

Mgr. Kryštof Pazdírek
Mgr. Kryštof Pazdírek

Associate

Kryštof Pazdírek graduated from the Faculty of Law of Charles University in Prague.

Disclaimer:

The information contained in this article is for general informational purposes only and serves as a basic guide to the issue as of 2026. Although we strive for maximum accuracy, laws and their interpretation evolve over time. We are ARROWS Law Firm, a member of the Czech Bar Association (our supervisory authority), and for the maximum security of our clients, we are insured for professional liability with a limit of CZK 350,000,000. To verify the current wording of the regulations and their application to your specific situation, it is necessary to contact ARROWS Law Firm directly (consultation@arws.cz). We are not liable for any damages arising from the independent use of the information in this article without prior individual legal consultation.

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