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What to Watch Out for When Selling Real Estate During Marriage?

Selling property during marriage requires checking whether it forms part of the spouses’ joint property and whether the other spouse’s consent is required. A sole owner entry in the land register is not always decisive, and consent may also be needed for separately owned property used as the family home. The article explains the correct sale process and the risk of the purchase agreement being challenged.

Flowchart illustrating property management steps during marriage in the Czech legal context.

Key takeaways

  • The Land Register is not always decisive. An entry in the Land Register listing only one spouse does not automatically mean that the real property is not part of the joint property of spouses (JPS). The actual state of affairs must always be further examined.
  • The method and time of acquisition are crucial. Real property falls into your exclusive ownership if you acquired it before entering into marriage, through inheritance, or by gift, regardless of the time of acquisition. Otherwise, it is part of the JPS.
  • Real property acquired by purchase after marriage is in the JPS. If you purchased real property after entering into marriage, it falls into the joint property of spouses (JPS), even if only one of you signed the purchase agreement. There are only statutory exceptions.
  • Even real property outside the JPS may require consent. If the real property is not part of the JPS but serves as the family household, you need your spouse's consent to sell it. Ideally, your spouse should sign the purchase agreement as an ancillary party.

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What does the Land Registry record show?

But beware! If you or only your spouse are listed as the owner in the Land Registry, you cannot automatically conclude that the property is not part of the joint property of spouses (SJM) based on this record. In such a case, it is necessary to further examine whether the property, despite such a record in the Land Registry, does in fact fall under the SJM.

Does the property actually fall under the SJM?

To assess whether a property is in the exclusive ownership of one of the spouses or falls under the SJM, it is first necessary to assess on what legal basis and at what time the spouse acquired the property.

If a spouse acquired the property before entering into the marriage, and the SJM was not extended to include this property during the marriage, then it is in the exclusive ownership of that spouse. The same will be true if the spouse acquired the property through inheritance or a gift agreement, regardless of whether they were already married or if it happened before the marriage.

If a spouse acquired the property based on a purchase agreement after entering into the marriage, then unless it falls under statutory exceptions, such property will be part of the SJM, even if only one of the spouses concluded and signed the purchase agreement.

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Procedure for selling

1. The property is not in the SJM

If the property you want to sell is not in the SJM, it does not mean that there is nothing else to address and that the property can be sold without any involvement of your spouse. First, it is necessary to consider whether a family household exists in the property that is not in the SJM (for more on this topic, see our separate article, available here).

In short, we can state that if there is no family household in the property being sold, you can conclude the purchase agreement and sell the property without your spouse's consent and involvement. If a family household did exist there, it would be essential for your spouse to give consent to the sale of the property, or ideally, to also sign the purchase agreement with you as an accessory party.

2. The property is in the SJM

If the property is part of the SJM, then the involvement of your spouse is, of course, essential. In such a case, this will be a so-called non-routine matter (for more on this topic, see our separate article, available here), for which you need your spouse's consent.

The ideal procedure should be that you both sign the purchase agreement on the seller's side – both you and your spouse. If, for example, the purchase agreement has already been signed and the spouse was left out of the process, it will be necessary to obtain the spouse's written consent to the sale of the property, or rather, to the conclusion of this specific purchase agreement.

Otherwise, the spouse could in the future dispute the validity of the concluded purchase agreement, which could cause significant problems for both you and the person who bought the property from you (especially if the buyer financed the purchase with a mortgage loan). In such a case, you could also face a great risk that the buyer would claim damages from you that arose as a result of your incorrect procedure.

Frequently asked questions about selling property from the joint property of spouses

1. Do both spouses have to sign the purchase agreement if the property is part of the joint property of spouses?

Not necessarily, but it is the safest option. Selling property from the joint property of spouses is not a routine matter, so the spouses act jointly, or one of them acts with the other's consent (Section 714(1) of the Civil Code). Both spouses' signatures on the purchase agreement are the most reliable proof that consent was given.

2. Can the spouse's consent to the sale be added after the agreement has been signed?

In practice, yes. If the spouse was not present at the signing, their written consent to the specific purchase agreement should be obtained as soon as possible so that they cannot later invoke its invalidity. Ideally, this should be done before the application for registration in the Land Registry is filed.

3. What does the seller risk if they sell without the spouse's consent?

The spouse may invoke the invalidity of the agreement, and the buyer may then claim compensation from the seller for the damage incurred as a result. The risk is greater especially if the buyer financed the purchase with a mortgage loan.
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Conclusion

As is clear from the above, even selling a property is not as straightforward and simple as it might seem at first glance. It is therefore always advisable to consult everything with an expert so that an incorrectly chosen procedure cannot lead to situations that would mean considerable problems in the future for both you and the buyer.

As a rule, the costs of having a professional assess the matter and prepare the contractual documentation are only a fraction of the potential costs that can arise if a problem occurs. By establishing the correct procedure and having the contractual documentation prepared by a professional, you can prevent future worries and costs, both financial and time-related.

From the buyer's side, it is also always advisable to check, within their means, whether the property they intend to buy belongs to the seller's SJM, at least by checking the acquisition title, which can be obtained from the relevant Land Registry.

Frequently asked questions about selling property during the marriage

1. Which properties are not part of the joint property of spouses?

For example, those that a spouse acquired before the wedding, or during the marriage by gift or inheritance, unless the donor expressed the intention to benefit both spouses (Section 709 of the Civil Code). The spouses may also arrange this differently in a matrimonial property agreement.

2. How can the buyer find out whether the property is part of the joint property of spouses?

They cannot reliably find out from the Land Registry. They should request the seller's acquisition title from the cadastral office, i.e. the document on the basis of which the seller acquired the property, and use it to assess when and how the seller obtained it.

3. Do I need my spouse's consent even for a property that belongs only to me?

Yes, if the family household is located there and the property is essential for the family's housing. In that case, it cannot be transferred without consent, unless you provide your spouse or family with housing that is comparable in all respects (Section 747 of the Civil Code).

4. Can the joint property of spouses also include a property acquired before the wedding?

Yes, if the spouses extend the scope of the joint property of spouses to include this property by agreement. A matrimonial property agreement requires the form of a public deed, in practice a notarial record (Section 716 of the Civil Code). Without such an agreement, a property acquired before the wedding remains in the exclusive ownership of that spouse.
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Book cover titled "Rodina, Byznys a Majetek" discussing legal aspects of property in marriage.

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Next steps

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About the author

Mgr. František Bárta
Mgr. František Bárta

Associate, partner

František Bárta is a senior attorney at ARROWS. František is a graduate of the Faculty of Law of Masaryk University in Brno and since the beginning of his legal career he has been dealing mainly with contract law with a focus on real estate law, which he currently focuses on exclusively.

Disclaimer:

The information contained in this article is for general informational purposes only and serves as a basic guide to the issue as of 2026. Although we strive for maximum accuracy, laws and their interpretation evolve over time. We are ARROWS Law Firm, a member of the Czech Bar Association (our supervisory authority), and for the maximum security of our clients, we are insured for professional liability with a limit of CZK 350,000,000. To verify the current wording of the regulations and their application to your specific situation, it is necessary to contact ARROWS Law Firm directly (consultation@arws.cz). We are not liable for any damages arising from the independent use of the information in this article without prior individual legal consultation.

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